The help page says:
If you are looking for the law in a particular area, please tag your question with the appropriate jurisdiction tag (e.g. united-states, texas, new-york-city, england-and-wales). Even if you supply a jurisdiction tag, we expect and encourage answers dealing with other jurisdictions – while it might not answer your question directly, your question will be here for others who may be from those jurisdictions. If you do this, please tag your answer using the tag markdown: [tag: some-tag].
This suggests that if you are not looking for the law in a particular area, there is no need for a jurisdiction tag.
Quite a while ago, not knowing about this policy, user Someone created the tag any-jurisdiction, which is somewhat redundant because of this policy. It seems to have been received well by other users, though; it is currently used on 205 questions (124 by the most-frequent user of the tag, 38 from the second-most-frequent user, and 12 from the third-most-frequent user).
Should every question be tagged with either a location-specific jurisdiction tag or any-jurisdiction? Or conversely, is it okay to leave a question untagged when you don't care where an answer comes from?
If the community prefers an explicit any-jurisdiction I'll follow along.
I ask because I have been told that not specifying "any-jurisdiction" "misleads the community who is trying to help" and that I could "use that loophole to play mind tricks with those who are try to help." I am not sure in what sense I could use it as a "loophole." Without a tag, people would answer my question from a variety of jurisdictions. The only side effect is that I'd be more informed than I would have been otherwise. It doesn't sound like a downside to me or the community to have answers from multiple jurisdictions. I don't mean to pick on or give too much significance to this one critique, but it is a perspective I had not considered and admittedly do not understand.