Several questions on the Law.SE specify jurisdiction, or do not provide any jurisdiction for their question.

If a question has already been asked for a specific jurisdiction, may one ask the same question for a different jurisdiction?

If a question has been asked with no jurisdiction specified, may one ask the question for a specific jurisdiction?

  • Note that there have been several discussions about this: see jurisdiction
    – feetwet Mod
    Commented Jan 20, 2016 at 19:17

2 Answers 2


A question about the law in England and Wales in a certain situation, and the question about the law in Scotland in the same situation are two different questions and are likely to have different answers. It would be perverse if Law.SE allowed only one of those questions to be asked.

OTOH, if someone has already asked about E&W, and an answer has been given which says "and this also applies in Scotland", then don't bother asking again (just upvote the answer).

If the question about E&W doesn't provide an answer about Scotland, then ask away - but do reference the E&W question. and explain why it doesn't help.


If a question has not specified the jurisdiction, but none of the answers cover the one that you want, do not ask the question again just for the specific jurisdiction - it is a simple duplicate and should be closed anyway.

You can draw attention to it by adding a bounty, and requesting an answer for the jurisdiction you have interest in.

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